Friday, February 20, 2015

Chapter Five: Resurrection in Paul (Outside the Corinthian Correspondence)


 [This is an ongoing project that is analyzing N.T. Wright’s 5 volume series, Christian Origins and the Question of God. This series is widely read and bridges the gap between the academic and devotional world. It is therefore worthy to be carefully analyzed so that all readers can understand his key points while at the same time gaining a critical eye to some of his rather bold claims. This series of posts are concerning volume 3 – The Resurrection of the Son of God.]

N.T. Wright’s chapter discussing Paul is also his first chapter discussing Jesus movement resurrection. Therefore, he first discusses briefly his view that resurrection in the Jesus Movement was generally uniform and simultaneously different from Judaism. He then moves into the second portion of the chapter in which he discusses resurrection in Paul outside of the Corinthian correspondence which he will spend the next two chapters discussing. I argue that Wright’s general position about Paul’s presentation in 1 Thessalonians and Philippians is generally quite well done – with a few exceptions, but that his characterization of the Jesus movement’s uniformity on resurrection is rather overstated. Given that this chapter covers these two topics, I will break this down into two sections.

1.     Wright’s general views about resurrection in the early Jesus Movement

Wright argues that one of the major elements that gave the Jesus movement a clear identity was the generally uniform view of resurrection. Wright explains it as surprising given the diversity of views in the Greco-Roman world, even within Judaism:
One of the most striking features of the early Christian movement is its virtual unanimity about the future hope. We might have expected that Christians would quickly have developed a spectrum of beliefs about life after death, corresponding to the spectrums we have observed in the Judaism from within which Christianity emerged and the paganism into which it went as a missionary movement; but they did not.[1]
He argues that the views of the Jesus movement were relatively unanimous – where they would not be the same for other issues. He argues that it is amazing that it seems to be in line with the dominant Jewish view of the time. However, he notes that this is particularly surprising because Christians saw resurrection quite differently from Judaism. They used the same words, but interpreted it quite differently in the same way.
There are substantial mutations from within the ‘resurrection’ stream of Judaism. In particular, the historian must account for the fact that, with early Christianity thus being so clearly a ‘resurrection’ movement in the Jewish sense, the well-established metaphorical meanings emerge instead. How does it come about, in other words, that early Christianity located its life-after-death beliefs so firmly at the ‘resurrection’ end of the Jewish spectrum, while simultaneously giving the word a metaphorical meaning significantly different from, through in long-range continuity with, the meaning it had within Judaism? How do we account for both the strong similarity between Christianity and Judaism (there is no sign, in early Christian resurrection belief, of anything remotely like a move in a pagan direction) and the equally clear dissimilarities?[2]
Wright then argues that Christians had basically the same view of the resurrection that was dependent upon one basic stream of Judaism, but which had interpreted it in a new way. Wright presents this as quite a conundrum.

The challenge with Wright’s presentation here is that it overstates the case. He argues for “general” unanimity. The only way that early Christianity was unanimous on resurrection is if one used the word “general” quite broadly. He is certainly right that the view presented by the vast majority of the figures in the New Testament (though not all) won out, but it would take several hundred years to get there.

Wright centered his focus on the unanimous view that humans believed in a bodily resurrection: “It meant bodily resurrection; and that is what the early Christians affirmed.”[3] While this is somewhat true, what it looked like and when it occurred varied quite aggressively. For example, in his discussion of Paul he includes Colossians and Ephesians as having essentially the same view as Paul.[4] However, Colossians and Ephesians (Ephesians being dependent upon Colossians) have been famously challenged as to Pauline authorship precisely because of their contrast on the doctrine of resurrection. Ephesians treats resurrection as something that has already happened:
But God who is rich in mercy, out of the great love with which he loved us even when we were dead through our trespasses, made us alive together with Christ – by grace you have been saved – and raised us up with him and seated us with him in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus, so that in the ages to come he might show the immeasurable riches of his grace in kindness toward us in Christ Jesus.[5]
What is key here is that the concept of being raised is clearly in the past tense. Paul firmly opposes this and sees resurrection a thing that will happen at the end of days when it will be truly bodily resurrection from the grave. Wright argues that these are in far more continuity than discontinuity, but his discussion plays down the real tension that these two ideas propose.

Further, if one considers work that did not make the New Testament, it is clear that there was not such a unanimous view of resurrection as Wright wishes there were. For example, the question of a bodily resurrection was challenged by many thinkers. Origen of Alexandria (d. 254), for instance, argued that when we are reunited with God (he argued we all were already once), we would be, if corporeal at all, very incorporeal to a point where we can’t imagine ourselves having any real physical body. In fact, he argued that soma – the “body” can only be seen as an extension of the psyche – the soul. The actual fleshly body – sarx – passes away into the fire. This is simply one very influential figure to show that the view was not nearly as “universal” as Wright would like. There were certainly many different perspectives on the topic. Just because a number of authors in the New Testament agreed did not mean that the movement as a whole agreed.

2.     Paul (outside of the Corinthian correspondence)

For all the concern I had about Wright’s presentation of the general view of resurrection, I tended to value very much what Wright said of Paul’s view on resurrection. He overplays some elements – for instance his valuing of Romans as the key for resurrection language – but if that is the biggest problem, then I would be quite satisfied.

What Wright does, though, is focuses on the question of when the bodily resurrection will take place. He seems to want to argue that the modern concept that the people who have just died have souls who are hobnobbing in a kind of ethereal state has little grounding in Paul. Wright directs this point head on:
How does resurrection in this passage function within Paul’s larger picture? Initially, as an incentive to the right sort of grief (1 Thess. 4.13): not the kind of grief that overtakes people without hope, people in the pagan world the Thessalonians knew so well…This in, in fact, as close as we come in early Christian literature to the theme much beloved of preachers at funerals, namely the promise of a reunion beyond the grave with Christians already dead. Nothing is said, one way or the other, about such a reunion taking place before the resurrection itself; but the pastoral logic of the passage insists that an eventual reunion is what the creator God has in mind, and will accomplish at the time of Jesus’ return.[6]
Wright shows that 1 Thessalonians 4 – one of Paul’s clearest discussion of the resurrection, does not discuss any element of a current half-resurrection where those who are asleep are somehow interacting. Instead, it argues that these figures are very clearly asleep and will not rise until the day of the Lord.

Wright does a very good heuristic move, however, by showing the challenge of this view. He focuses on Philippians 1 which has his angst wherein he seems to suggest that his dying would be unity with Christ.[7] This would seem to suggest a kind of current state of being with Christ before the resurrection. Wright argues that this can be understood in context. He mentions nothing about any resurrection connected with this intermediate state. Instead, he says that it is a comment about a way in which those who have “died in Christ” are somehow united with him even though they are asleep. It is not to suggest the great value of this state, rather, it can be argued, it is to show the weakness of the current world in which we live. The argument is that our present life is so hard – not that the intermediate one before the resurrection will be so good.

What is to be appreciated in Wright’s analysis is that he is fair to those who disagree with him and shows why it is they do so. What he could have done better in 1 Thessalonians was to emphasize the communal concern of resurrection. He mentions it once in quote cited above, but on the whole, he falls into the usual trap of understanding 1 Thessalonians 4 of thinking that it was responding to those who have died and the question of if they had “missed it.” If that was the case, then verse 1 would have solved it – they did not miss it. The next 6 verses are set to explain what will happen all with the idea that the dead will be with them in the future and that there is no priority of those who have died from those who are alive. It is as if the primary problem was not the question that those who died might miss it, but whether they would really be a community in the future. This aspect seems woefully lacking in Wright’s analysis and without it, the conversation becomes too one-sided and does not explain the complexities of the text.



[1] RSG, 209.
[2] RSG, 210
[3] RSG, 209.
[4] RSG, 237-240.
[5] Eph. 2:4-7.
[6] RSG, 217.
[7] RSG, 226.

Friday, February 13, 2015

Is Philippians 3:5-9 relevant to Paul’s “conversion?”: An argument for challenging a common reading


Very frequently in conversation about Paul’s theology in both the “New Perspective,” “Neo-Lutheran Perspective” or simply traditional readings, much is made of the nature of Paul’s “conversion” experience.[1] Indeed, much of the “New Perspective” was developed from Stendahl’s argument that we should not think of Paul’s experience as a “conversion” from one religion to another, but rather simply a “calling” to a new mission to the Gentiles. The strength of this argument is a priority of Galatians 1. Philippians 3 is then read with the understanding of Galatians. The traditional perspective reads it the opposite way – that Paul’s proclamation that he now considers his standing within Judaism as skubala and this insight should govern how we read Galatians 1. In both cases, both sides are using Philippians 3 as a fundamental text to teach us about Paul’s conversion. However, a closer look at Philippians 3 seriously questions whether such a grouping is helpful. Rather, this paper suggests that Philippians 3 should be understood as a missional strategy as expressed in 1 Corinthians 9:19-23. This would not fundamentally change which of the views one holds (New Perspective or Traditional readings). Rather, I argue we need to look more carefully at the texts and be careful as to what we they are truly expressing.

The letter to the Philippians is historically confusing, so much that it has led many to think that it is actually a compilation of 3 letters of Paul to the community. Paul seems to have three separate messages and settings that do not seem to completely with each other. Without going too far into this conversation, the letter is divided between Phil. 1:1-3:1; 3:2-4:1; and 4:1-23. Whether or not the book was actually a compilation of three different letters or if Paul simply wrote the letter in three sections, for the purposes of this paper, 3:2-4:1 does seem to have a fundamentally different circumstance in mind than the other sections. Most commentators – even very conservative ones who are very opposed to this division of books of the Bible in practice agree. Very few use any sections of Phil. 1-2 to understand the context in Philippians 3. Therefore, this paper will focus entirely on Philippians 3:2-4:1 as a self-enclosed unit that deserves to be studied on its own.

The use of Philippians 3 for information about Paul’s conversion is based upon the fact that Paul does discuss his “former” life and his “current” life. The text, therefore, was quite naturally read as good information about how he once lived as compared to how he lives now. The text in full is expressed here:
If anyone else has reason to be confident in the flesh, I have more: 5circumcised on the eighth day, a member of the people of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew born of Hebrews; as to the law, a Pharisee; 6as to zeal, a persecutor of the church; as to righteousness under the law, blameless.
7 Yet whatever gains I had, these I have come to regard as loss because of Christ. 8More than that, I regard everything as loss because of the surpassing value of knowing Christ Jesus my Lord. For his sake I have suffered the loss of all things, and I regard them as rubbish, in order that I may gain Christ 9and be found in him, not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but one that comes through faith in Christ, the righteousness from God based on faith.[2]
Here, it can be seen why readers of Philippians have seen it as helpful information as regards to his “conversion.” It presents some kind of contrast between how he lives now and how he lived in the past. This is particularly helpful because of how rarely Paul speaks autobiographically and thus this passage would be very helpful if it was discussing this contrast. The problem, of course, is that nothing in the text itself says when this former and current life are contrasted. It is only an interpretative decision that readers take this autobiographical discussion to be the moment of his “conversion.”

The two different perspectives on Paul consider this same text and use it quite differently. The traditional “Lutheran” perspective argues that Paul’s conversion was a shift in his thinking. Smart scholars recognize that there was no such thing as “Christianity” when Paul lived, but they argue that he didn’t know what to call this new revelation, but he did see it as something aggressively different. They argue that Galatians 1 presents the event while Philippians 3 presents the content. Galatians 1 does clearly present Paul’s version of what happened:
 11 For I want you to know, brothers and sisters, that the gospel that was proclaimed by me is not of human origin; 12for I did not receive it from a human source, nor was I taught it, but I received it through a revelation of Jesus Christ.
13 You have heard, no doubt, of my earlier life in Judaism. I was violently persecuting the church of God and was trying to destroy it. 14I advanced in Judaism beyond many among my people of the same age, for I was far more zealous for the traditions of my ancestors. 15But when God, who had set me apart before I was born and called me through his grace, was pleased 16to reveal his Son to me, so that I might proclaim him among the Gentiles, I did not confer with any human being, 17nor did I go up to Jerusalem to those who were already apostles before me, but I went away at once into Arabia, and afterwards I returned to Damascus.[3]
Paul, therefore, describes the event as a revelation of God’s son, Jesus Christ, to him and gave him the mission of going to the Gentiles. The traditional readers then argue that Paul here does not tell us the content of the revelation. Instead, they argue that he merely discusses the event as an event. They then use Philippians 3:7-9 as the content:
7 Yet whatever gains I had, these I have come to regard as loss because of Christ. 8More than that, I regard everything as loss because of the surpassing value of knowing Christ Jesus my Lord. For his sake I have suffered the loss of all things, and I regard them as rubbish, in order that I may gain Christ 9and be found in him, not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but one that comes through faith in Christ, the righteousness from God based on faith.[4]
The argument is that the content of Phil. 3 provides the means by which Paul saw his life radically differently. This was, for the traditional perspective, what the implications of the revelation of God’s son. The primary shift, then, was that Paul radically altered his life and that at that revelatory moment, he ceased his former life in Judaism and started a new one completely differently. Some would go even farther and say that he saw the error in his old life and its impossibility and that he found a new solution to this crisis. The revelation then, was primarily, and introspective psychological shift. The mission to the gentiles, then, was secondary. The fact that he went to the gentiles was really only an extrapolation from the fact that Paul has abandoned and denigrated the value of the Torah. Therefore, he can easily go to the gentiles who were, before this moment, excluded as they didn’t follow Torah.

The New Perspective, by contrast, prioritizes Galatians 1 over against Phil. 3. They interpret Galatians 1’s comment that it was “God, who had set me apart before I was born and called me through his grace” which had contacted him. Paul does not see this as a new god, a new religion, nor a new understanding of the law. Instead, he sees it as a revelation of God’s son with the primary purpose of so that I might proclaim him among the Gentiles.” The mission to the Gentiles was the primary content of the message. They prove this by focusing on the same passage from Philippians, merely emphasizing Phil. 3:6 as the guide for what follows. Phil 3:6 argues that in Paul’s “former life” he had no problem following Torah: “As to righteousness under the law, [I was] blameless.” The New Perspective, then, argues that this shows us what his life was life “before” his conversion – he was someone who felt that he absolutely was following Torah and had no problem. The primary argument, of course, is that there was room for forgiveness in Torah. Paul was quite comfortable saying that both “As to righteousness under the law, [I was] blameless” and “I do not understand my own actions. For I do not do what I want, but I do the very thing I hate.”[5] The New Perspective, then, argues that Philippians shows us clearly that Paul’s “conversion” was not a shift from following the law legalistically (and unsuccessfully) to abandoning it as a new covenant. Instead, they argue that Paul did not see this revelation as a functional change in his religious world, just that he received a special “calling” to go to the Gentiles. They then argue that Phil. 3:7-9 which discusses his seeing his previous merits as skubala is merely secondary to that primary mission. They argue that Paul abandon’s his perfectly good salvation he already possessed in order to reach the gentiles: “In order that I may gain Christ 9and be found in him, not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but one that comes through faith in Christ, the righteousness from God based on faith.”[6] The argument, then, is that at Paul’s “calling” he abandons Torah observation – which he could well have used for salvation – and now embraces Christ as if he were a gentile.

I am not particularly interested, in this article, in arguing for or against either of these previous positions; what I would like to note is that both sides implicitly assume that Philippians 3 should be interpreted as conversation about Paul’s conversion. Both sides feel that anything talking about former Torah observation with current non-observation must have been at the point of his “conversion.” That assumption is what I argue needs to be more carefully considered. First, it is necessary to look carefully at the whole text of Philippians and ask if this necessarily has anything to do with the “conversion” scene. Consider the text again with that question in mind:
 If anyone else has reason to be confident in the flesh, I have more: 5circumcised on the eighth day, a member of the people of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew born of Hebrews; as to the law, a Pharisee; 6as to zeal, a persecutor of the church; as to righteousness under the law, blameless.
7 Yet whatever gains I had, these I have come to regard as loss because of Christ. 8More than that, I regard everything as loss because of the surpassing value of knowing Christ Jesus my Lord. For his sake I have suffered the loss of all things, and I regard them as rubbish, in order that I may gain Christ 9and be found in him, not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but one that comes through faith in Christ, the righteousness from God based on faith.[7]
If one reads carefully, he has no conversation about the point at which, nor the motivation for his abandoning Torah observation. He certainly does narrative his change in behavior. However, it should be noted that he doesn’t say that it was at the point of revelation as depicted in Galatians 1 that he made this shift. Further, while he does say that he abandoned Torah observation so that he could be in relationship with Christ as his primary covenant, he does not say that Torah observation is necessarily in competition. He does suggest that righteousness under the Torah – which it should be noted he does imply he really did have – was different than righteousness gained by Christ, however, he never completely says they are mutually exclusive.

If we do not know when he makes this shift – the assumption that it was at his “conversion” scene is simply an assumption – then reasonable question ought to be asked why he made this shift. If he made the shift directly at his conversion, then the combining of Phil. 3 and Galatians 1 would make good sense. However, neither text suggests that as something that necessarily occurred. Galatians 1 never says anything about abandoning Torah just as Philippians 3 does not say anything about the “conversion” experience.

Further, the problem is complicated given the polemical challenge of both texts. Galatians 1 is challenging the church in Galatia that his authority is not from a human source. Philippians 3 is warning those of the “evil workers” – Jewish Christian missionaries – who are preaching circumcision. Philippians 3 then is making a strong argument that circumcision is unnecessary and to do so, he uses his own example of not following Torah. However, if the primary argument is that something is unnecessary or extraneous, that is hardly reason to suggest that it was antithetical to his gospel.

If his message is simply one that following Torah is not necessary (and given that the time is short, a general waste of time for the gentiles), then it is far more challenging for us to ask when he abandons Torah. If his message is that one can be following Torah and following Christ – it is just not necessary – there is definitely room for Paul to have made this shift at some time separate from his “conversion.”

Real question can be raised as to whether this would best be understood in regard to his missional strategy. He argues that when he tries to reach a group, he either follows Torah or not depending upon the preference of the group. Famously he argues thus in 1 Corinthians:
19 For though I am free with respect to all, I have made myself a slave to all, so that I might win more of them. 20To the Jews I became as a Jew, in order to win Jews. To those under the law I became as one under the law (though I myself am not under the law) so that I might win those under the law. 21To those outside the law I became as one outside the law (though I am not free from God’s law but am under Christ’s law) so that I might win those outside the law. 22To the weak I became weak, so that I might win the weak. I have become all things to all people, so that I might by any means save some. 23I do it all for the sake of the gospel, so that I may share in its blessings.[8]  
Paul clearly abandons Torah when he functions with the Gentiles. He further can follow Torah when he is with Jews. Philippians 3 then could easily be reflecting upon a missional strategy that he could have adopted at really any time – it would not necessarily have to be at his “conversion.”

Finally, if one considers Acts, there is not good reason at all to think that Acts argues that Paul abandoned Torah on the road to Damascus. While Acts is usually seen with great skepticism, one would think that this book – which traditional perspective authors claim is clearer as far as Paul changing from one religion to another – would make it clear that Paul abandons Torah observation. However, in chapter 9 on the road to Damascus, there is nothing about Torah observation. Further, Ananias makes no mention of it. In fact, Peter’s revelation that Torah observation was not always necessy will not occur until the following chapter. The text does say that Paul went in and out among the believers – and seemingly also the Gentiles, it says nothing about whether Paul actually abandoned Torah or not. In fact, there is no indication at all in Acts that Paul even preached a gospel that did not include Torah observation until Acts 15 when the Jerusalem council comes to that decision. It is later very clear that Paul does preach that Gentiles do not need to follow the Torah covenant, as Jews frequently accuse him of doing. However, when one reads it carefully, it should be noted that he is accused of telling other people not to follow Torah, not that he himself does not: “This man is persuading people to worship God in ways that are contrary to the law.”[9] Finally, Paul even follows proper temple worship in Jerusalem.[10] Of course, none of this proves Paul didn’t abandon Torah in Acts, however, the assumption that Acts agrees that Paul’s conversion included his abandonment of Torah is simply inaccurate. The conversion experience in Acts mentions nothing about Torah. In fact, Acts would suggest that this shift came later (if at all).

All of this does not end with me arguing that Philippians 3 cannot be used to interpret Galatians 1. When there is so precious little about Paul’s life, it would be a mistake to discard anything. What I am arguing however, is that the implicit assumption that these texts must be talking about the same event is incorrect. Any connection between the two texts must be proven. That his abandonment of Torah occurred at his “conversion” is a possible hypothesis – but it is only a hypothesis. I have presented another possible one – that this could have been a later development based upon his mission to the Gentiles. My hypothesis is to be viewed simply as that – another possible hypothesis. In either case, both the New Perspective and the traditional perspective would do well to be more careful with the combination of these two texts.



[1] Throughout this essay, I will put the “conversion” in quotes merely because this provides middle ground. The New Perspective on Paul challenges whether Paul truly “converted” – i.e. changed from one religion to another whereas the traditional perspective insists upon the word. Providing the quotation marks is a way of recognizing that Paul did go through some transformative event – whether it is better construed as a “call” or a “conversion” is outside the scope of this essay. I use the term “conversion” simply because it is the most traditional naming of the event and thus the most recognizable for readers. I am not here implicitly supporting or denigrating either position.
[2] Phil. 3:4b-9.
[3] Gal. 1:11-17.
[4] Phil. 3:4b-9.
[5] Romans 7:15
[6] Phil. 3:9.
[7] Phil. 3:4b-9.
[8] 1 Cor. 9:19-23
[9] Acts 18:13; 21:21-26.
[10] Acts 24:14-18.